INHERENT NATURE vs. LUST: Can You Be Gay And Christian?
SODOM AND GIBEAH: Hey, What's Going On Here?!
HOMOSEXUALS ARE GAY! (But Sodomites Are Not!)
OUR LITTLE TEST: God's Words or Your Words?
LEVITICUS 18 & 20: The Heterosexual Abomination
ROMANS 1: Are Homosexuals Just Perverted Heterosexuals?
1st TIMOTHY & 1st CORINTHIANS: And Such Were Some Of You - But Not All Of You
COLOSSIANS 3: Are Gays The Children Of Disobedience?
A BIBLICAL GAY MARRIAGE: Did The Church Just Miss This One - Or Did They Intentionally Ignore It?
GAY MARRIAGE & ADOPTION: It Is Not Good That The Man Should Be Alone
ADAM AND... STEVE? Are Genitals The Qualifier For Marriage?

(But Sodomites Are Not!)


There are only five verses in all of Scripture (three in 1st Kings, one in 2nd Kings, and one in Deuteronomy) which use the word SODOMITE – and none of them refer to homosexuals:

1) Deuteronomy 23:17, "There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a SODOMITE of the sons of Israel."

2) 1st Kings 14:23-24, "For they also built them high places, and images, and groves, on every high hill, and under every green tree. And there were also SODOMITES in the land, and they did according to all the abominations of the nations which the Lord cast out before the children of Israel.”

3) 1st Kings 15:12, "And he took away the SODOMITES out of the land, and removed all the idols that his fathers had made.”

4) 1st Kings 22:43-46, "And (King Jehoshaphat) walked in all the ways of Asa his father; he turned not aside from it, doing that which was right in the eyes of the Lord: nevertheless the high places were not taken away; for the people offered and burnt incense yet in the high places. And Jehoshaphat made peace with the king of Israel. Now the rest of the acts of Jehoshaphat, and his might that he showed, and how he warred, are they not written in the Book of the Chronicles of the kings of Judah? And the remnant of the SODOMITES, which remained in the days of his father Asa, he took out of the land." 

5) 2nd kings 23:4-7, “And the king commanded Hilkiah the high priest and the priests of the second order and the keepers of the door to bring forth out of the temple of the LORD all the vessels that were made for Baal and for 1the grove and for all the 2host of heaven; and he burned them without Jerusalem in the fields of Kidron and carried the ashes of them unto Bethel. And he put down the idolatrous priests whom the kings of Judah had ordained to burn incense in the high places in the cities of Judah and in the places round about Jerusalem - them also that burned incense unto Baal, to the sun, and to the moon, and to the planets, and to all the 2host of heaven; and he brought out 1the grove from the 3house of the LORD, without Jerusalem, unto the brook Kidron, and burned it at the brook Kidron, and stamped it small to powder and cast the powder thereof upon the graves of the children of the people. And he brake down the 3houses of the SODOMITES that were by the  3house of the LORD where the women wove hangings for 1the grove.” 

1: an idol image of Baal’s consort Asherah (Ashtoreth/Asteroth/Astarte/Easter) the fertility goddess

2: objects in the Firmament

3: temple(s)


The Hebrew word, which the KJV translates as "Sodomite", is "Qadesh". As a reader of the Hebrew language, I know and understand the definition of Qadesh. In fact, the word was once so popular and well known that there were several cities which bore this name. But don’t take my word alone on the definition. Here's how the famous Strong's Concordance of the KJV translates this word:


"a quasi sacred person, i.e. a male devotee by prostitution

to licentious idolatry; - Sodomite, unclean."


Want another resource? The NAS Concordance defines it as:

“a male cult temple prostitute”



Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon defines it as:

“masculine temple prostitute"

Literally, Qadesh refers to male prostitution in pagan religious rites. By the very Hebrew definition of the word, we see that it does not refer to a homosexual, but rather, male religious prostitution heterosexually and/or homosexually - since the Bible makes NO mention of either (which is another flaw in the anti-gay interpretation of this word).


The context of the verses above also confirms the Hebrew definition. In EVERY case that "Sodomite" occurs in the Scriptures, we see it coupled with idolatry or prostitution - which is exactly what a Sodomite would be involved with. A Sodomite is the male equivalent of a female temple prostitute, used for sexual rituals and orgies to false gods, such as Dionysus, Bacchus, Baal, and Dagon. Men would have sex with Sodomites - not because they were homosexual, but because they believed that this was the offering demanded by the god to who they offered their sex offering. They believed that the energy built up during the sex act was some sort of spiritual energy, and they believed that there were two different types of energies they could achieve to offer to their god - one with a female, and one with a male. And for this very reason, this practice is known to flourish among many sects of witchcraft (Wicca) and Satanism today.


Please let me demonstrate to you from history that it wasn’t until very modern times that the term Sodomite was changed from referring to effeminate male temple sex priests to referring to all homosexuals.


The multi-volume encyclopedic series HAKLAYTUS POSTHUMUS – OR, PURCHAS HIS PILGRIMES: CONTAYNING A HISTORY OF THE WORLD IN SEA VOYAGES AND LANDE TRAVELLS BY ENGLISHMEN AND OTHERS, written and compiled by Richard Hakluyt and Samuel Purchas, and published in 1625 (just 14 years after the King James Version was published), is said to have later inspired the famous poem, “In Xanadu did Kubla Khan a stately pleasure-dome decree , where Alph the sacred river ran through caverns measureless to man down to a sunless sea,” which later inspired the Gene Kelly/Olivia Newton-John musical Xanadu. The historic definition of “Sodomite”, as it would have been understood by the translators of the King James Bible, is clearly spelled out in that old book's chapter entitled "BLACK CHRISTIANITIE – WICKED SODOMIE" (which, conveniently, was removed in the 1906 edition because that historical definition of sodomy clashed with the newly invented definition of the modern era); it describes life in 1558 in Loanda in the African Kingdom of Angola as encountered by a missionary:


"There was an Idol Temple with Images of Men and Women, with the heads of Goats and Snails and the feet of Elephants and other wild beasts..., the people being before made [to]believe that if any touched them, they should die suddenly… [The missionary] found here also certain CHIBADI, which were Men attired like Women, and behave themselves womanly, ashamed to be called men; are also married to men, and esteem that unnatural damnation an honor."


The missionary who witnessed those things in 1558 must have been chilled to the bones when he compared what he saw to what Paul said in to Romans 1:


“They are without excuse, because that, when they knew God

they glorified him not as God, neither were thankful, but became

vain in their imaginations and their foolish heart was darkened.

Professing themselves to be wise they became fools and changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man & to birds & fourfooted beasts & creeping things.

Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness

through the lusts of their own hearts

to dishonor their own bodies between themselves,

who changed the truth of God into a lie

and worshipped and served the creature

more than the Creator who is blessed for ever.”



That was NOT the definition of a homosexual.

According to TheFreeDictionary.com:

IDIOT, noun: A person who has been without understanding from his nativity, and whom the law, therefore, presumes is never likely to attain any.


I can safely guarantee that about 99% of the English speaking people of the world were unaware that this is the correct definition of Idiot. Today’s culture has redefined and re-applied "idiot" to be a slap-in-the-face insult to belittle one’s equal in the midst of a disagreement. By today’s standards, it would be considered very unchristian-like for a Christian to use this word, mostly because the church, instead of being a leader of Truth, has become a follower of the pop fad culture. The Apostle Paul specifically ordered Christian women not to wear make-up or jewelry or braid their hair, for example, but today the typical Christian woman considers herself to be inappropriately attired if her face isn’t spackled with make-up. I therefore cannot think of a more appropriate word than Idiot to describe a person who, despite all the facts to the contrary, can look me in the eyes and bald-facedly attribute to homosexuals, as a class of People, the heinousness attributed to historical/biblical Sodomites. I can only look at them with bafflement and pity, that someone could so willingly and defiantly choose ignorance.


That is not to say, of course, that there were no homosexual Sodomites. Many probably were; but according to ancient records, quite a few of them were very much heterosexual. In devotion to the goddesses of the groves and temples, these men would castrate themselves and offer their bodies to be used in religious orgies and sex rites in worship of the goddess – an invention of Satan to deface and defile the male who was made in the image of God. But none of that is the point. The point here is that “Sodomite” is no more the definition of “Homosexual” than “Whore” is the definition of “Female”. To continue to hold on to false doctrine after having attained the Truth is an abdication of godliness. Did not Jesus Himself tell us that on the Day of Judgment many will say that they served Him, yet He will say to them, “I NEVER KNEW YOU; DEPART FROM ME!”


Because so many people incorrectly believe that Sodom was destroyed for homosexuality, "homosexual" is assumed to be the definition of "Sodomite", and it is from this assumption that the newer term "Sodomy" was invented (referring to anal sex, under the ignorant assumption that all homosexuals engage in that practice). However, the Hebrew word “Qadesh” does not refer to the nation of Sodom or the so-called act of “Sodomy”. The King James translators used the English word "Sodomite" as a way to label the debaucherous behavior in the verses where the word is used. It’s a bit like using the word “Nazi” to sum up all the behavior of a tyrannical ruler. In Hebrew, if you were to refer to the citizens of Sodom as “Sodomites”, it would be “Sedomiit” (pronounced sed-om-eh-eet) - not “Qadesh”, as the English text uses. The translators did not err by using “Sodomite”, because “Qadesh”, when clearly defined in English, is extremely vulgar, and the translators used the polite common speech of their day by saying “Sodomite”. Sadly, a very WRONG definition has been applied to that English word, and had Christian scholars studied these verses to show themselves approved unto God, they would know this easily.


It is interesting that the church claims that this definition is a twisting of the Scriptures, when in fact it is the church that has altered the meaning of the English word to suit personal bias. I am always amazed that, with all of the scholarly wisdom among pastors and ministers of the Church-at-large, “sodomite” is taught to mean something that it does not mean. That is a clear indication of either personal bias, or ignorance, among the clergy, which is then inflicted upon the rest of the Body of Christ.

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